Q1. The chemical compounds produced by the host plants to protect themselves against fungal infection is
(1) phytoalexins
(2) phytotoxin
(3) hormone
(4) pathogen
Ans: (1) phytoalexins
Q2. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(1) covered smut of barley – Ustilago nuda
(2) root knot disease – Meloidogyne javanica
(3) late blight of potato – Phytophthora infestans
(4) smut of bajra – Tolyposporium penicillariae
Ans: (1) covered smut of barley – Ustilago nuda
Q3. The organism, used for alcoholic fermentation, is
(1) Aspergillus
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Penicillium
Ans: (3) Saccharomyces
Q4. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through
(1) plasma membrane
(2) lobopodia
(3) contractile vacuole
(4) uroid portion
Ans: (3) contractile vacuole
Q5. Interferons are
(1) anticancer proteins
(2) antiviral proteins
(3) complex proteins
(4) antibacterial proteins
Ans: (2) antiviral proteins
Q6. In bacterial chromosomes, the nucleic acid polymers are
(1) of two types-DNA and RNA
(2) linear DNA molecule
(3) linear RNA molecule
(4) circular DNA molecule
Ans: (4) circular DNA molecule
Q7. Influenza virus has
(1) both DNA and RNA
(2) DNA
(3) only proteins and no nucleic acids.
(4) RNA
Ans: (4) RNA
Q8. Sex factor in bacteria is
(1) RNA
(2) Chromosomal replicon
(3) Sex-pilus
(4) F-replicon
Ans: (4) F-replicon
Q9. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the examples of
(1) ammonifying bacteria
(2) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(3) disease-causing bacteria
(4) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
Ans: (4) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
Q10. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?
(1) Viruses are facultative parasites
(2) Viruses possess their own metabolic system
(3) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics
(4) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
Ans: (4) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
Q11. The plasmids present in the bacterial cells are
(1) linear double helical DNA molecules
(2) circular double helical DNA molecules
(3) linear double helical RNA molecules.
(4) circular double helical RNA molecules
Ans: (2) circular double helical DNA molecules
Q12. The hereditary material present in the bacterium Escherichia coli is
(1) double stranded DNA
(2) single stranded DNA
(3) single stranded RNA
(4) deoxyribose sugar
Ans: (1) double stranded DNA
Q13. Mycorrhiza is
(1) a fungus parasitising root system of higher plants
(2) a symbiotic association of plant roots and certain fungi
(3) an association of Rhizobium with the roots of leguminous plants
(4) an association of algae with fungi
Ans: (2) a symbiotic association of plant roots and certain fungi
Q14. Which one of the following is not true about lichens?
(1) Some species can be used as pollution indicators
(2) Their body is composed of both algal and fungal cells
(3) These grow very fast at the rate of about 2 cm per year
(4) Some form food for reindeers in arctic regions
Ans: (3) These grow very fast at the rate of about 2 cm per year
Q15. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another in the transduction process is through
(1) Another bacterium
(2) Conjugation
(3) Physical contact between donor and recipient strain
(4) Bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
Ans: (4) Bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
Q16. A few organisms are known to grow and multiply at temperatures of 100–105ºC. They belong to
(1) hot-spring blue-green algae (cyanobacteria)
(2) marine archaebacteria
(3) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
(4) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
Ans: (2) marine archaebacteria
Q17. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle involves
(1) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
(2) photosynthesis
(3) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds
(4) chemosynthesis
Ans: (1) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
Q18. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(1) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(2) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(3) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
(4) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
Ans: (2) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Q19. Most of the Lichens consist of
(1) red algae and ascomycetes
(2) blue-green algae and basidiomycetes
(3) brown algae and phycomycetes
(4) blue-green algae and ascomycetes
Ans: (4) blue-green algae and ascomycetes
Q20. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
(1) chromoplasts
(2) leucoplasts
(3) chromatophores
(4) chloroplasts
Ans: (3) chromatophores
Q21. Due to which of the following organisms, yield of rice has been increased?
(1) Sesbania
(2) Anabaena
(3) Bacillus polymyxa
(4) Bacillus popilliae
Ans: (2) Anabaena
Q22. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the industrial production of
(1) ethanol
(2) citric acid
(3) butanol
(4) tetracycline
Ans: (1) ethanol
Q23. Which one of the following microorganisms is used for production of citric acid in industries?
(1) Rhizopus nigricans
(2) Penicillium citrinum
(3) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(4) Aspergillus niger
Ans: (4) Aspergillus niger
Q24. Puccinia forms
(1) uredia and aecia on barberry leaves
(2) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves
(3) uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves
(4) uredia and telia on wheat leaves
Ans: (4) uredia and telia on wheat leaves
Q25. In fungi stored food material is
(1) sucrose
(2) glycogen
(3) glucose
(4) starch
Ans: (2) glycogen
Q26. A virus can be considered a living organism because it
(1) reproduces (inside the host)
(2) responds to touch stimulus
(3) can cause disease
(4) respires
Ans: (1) reproduces (inside the host)
Q27. Enzymes are absent in
(1) Algae
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Viruses
Ans: (4) Viruses
Q28. A good green manure in rice fields is
(1) Salvinia
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Mucor
(4) Azolla
Ans: (4) Azolla
Q29. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is
(1) linear DNA without histones
(2) linear DNA with histones
(3) circular DNA without histones
(4) circular DNA with histones
Ans: (3) circular DNA without histones
Q30. What is true for cyanobacteria?
(1) Non-oxygenic with nitrogen
(2) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(3) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
(4) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
Ans: (2) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
Q31. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in
(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Killer strain in Paramecium
(3) Tay sach disease
(4) Colour blindness
Ans: (2) Killer strain in Paramecium
Q32. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(1) Viruses
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria
Ans: (1) Viruses
Q33. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Penicillium
(4) Lactobacillus
Ans: (2) Saccharomyces
Q34. Black rust of wheat is caused by
(1) Aspergillus
(2) Puccinia
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Mucor
Ans: (2) Puccinia
Q35. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host with the help of
(1) softening by enzymes
(2) mechanical pressure and enzymes
(3) only by mechanical pressure
(4) hooks and suckers
Ans: (2) mechanical pressure and enzymes
Q36. Plant decomposers are
(1) Protista and animalia
(2) Monera and fungi
(3) Animalia and monera
(4) Fungi and plants
Ans: (2) Monera and fungi
Q37. What is true about plasmids?
(1) Plasmid contains genes for vital activities
(2) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
(3) These are the main party of chromosome
(4) These are found in virus
Ans: (2) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer
Q38. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains
(1) ds DNA
(2) ss RNA
(3) ss DNA
(4) ds RNA
Ans: (1) ds DNA
Q39. What is true about archaebacteria?
(1) All fossils
(2) All halophiles
(3) Oldest living beings
(4) All photosynthetic
Ans: (3) Oldest living beings
Q40. Which of the following secretes toxins during storage conditions of crop plants?
(1) Fusarium
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Colletotrichum
(4) Penicillium
Ans: (2) Aspergillus
Q41. Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction?
(1) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly
(2) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus
(3) Bacteria obtained DNA from other external source
(4) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation
Ans: (2) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus
Q42. In bacteria, plasmid is
(1) non-functional DNA
(2) extra – chromosomal material
(3) repetitive gene
(4) main DNA
Ans: (2) extra – chromosomal material
Q43. Which bacteria are utilized in the gobar gas plant?
(1) Ammonifying bacteria
(2) extra – chromosomal material
(3) Denitrifying bacteria
(4) Nitrifying bacteria
Ans: (2) extra – chromosomal material
Q44. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing medium due to
(1) reproductive isolation
(2) natural selection
(3) genetic drift
(4) Induced mutation
Ans: (2) natural selection
Q45. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3 in number and
(1) are always linear
(2) can be circular as well as linear within the same cell
(3) can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell
(4) are always circular
Ans: (4) are always circular
Q46. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes because
(1) they both need food molecules
(2) both require the environment of a cell to replicate
(3) they both require oxygen for respiration
(4) they require both RNA and DNA
Ans: (2) both require the environment of a cell to replicate
Q47. The chief advantage of encystment to an Amoeba is
(1) the ability to live for sometime without ingesting food
(2) the chance to get rid of accumulated waste products
(3) protection from parasites and predators
(4) the ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
Ans:(4) the ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
Q48. During the formation of bread it becomes porous due to release of CO2 by the action of
(1) Virus
(2) Yeast
(3) Protozoans
(4) Bacteria
Ans: (2) Yeast
Q49. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and flowers?
(1) Covered smut of barley
(2) Loose smut of wheat
(3) Soft rot of potato
(4) Corn stunt
Ans: (2) Loose smut of wheat
Q50. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?
(1) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
(2) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
(3) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
(4) Retroviruses carry gene for RNAdependent DNA polymerase
Ans: (2) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
Q51. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Spirulina – Single cell protein
(2) Streptomyces – Antibiotic
(3) Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
(4) Serratia – Drug addiction
Ans: (4) Serratia – Drug addiction
Q52. Lichens are a well known combination of an alga and a fungus where the fungus has
(1) a parasitic relationship with the alga
(2) a saprophytic relationship with the alga
(3) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
(4) an epiphytic relationship with the alga
Ans: (3) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
Q53. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size
(1) 300 × 5 nm
(2) 700 × 30 nm
(3) 300 × 20 nm
(4) 300 × 10 nm
Ans: (3) 300 × 20 nm
Q54. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?
(1) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
(2) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as capsid
(3) Viruses are obligate parasites
(4) Viruses possess their own metabolic system
Ans: (3) Viruses are obligate parasites
Q55. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
(1) Helicobacter pylori
(2) Mesophilic bacteria
(3) Streptococcus lactis
(4) Butyric acid bacteria
Ans: (4) Butyric acid bacteria
Q56. All of the following statements concerning the Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia
(1) Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids
(2) Can induce root nodules on many plant species
(3) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex
(4) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state.
Ans: (4) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state.
Q57. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed, respectively, by
(1) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
(2) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria
(3) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria.
(4) Some cyanobacteria and diatoms
Ans: (3) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria.
Q58. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis, are called
(1) lytic
(2) lysozymes
(3) lysogenic
(4) lipolytic
Ans: (1) lytic
Q59. The most thoroughly studied fact of the known bacteria plant interactions is the
(1) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
(2) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
(3) plant growth stimulation by phosphate solubilizing bacteria
(4) gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
Ans: (4) gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
Q60. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread? A. Temperature of about 25°C B. Temperature of about 5° C C. Relative humidity of about 5% D. Relative humidity of about 95% E. A shady place F. A brightly illuminated place Choose the answer from the following options:
(1) B, C and F only
(2) A, D and E only
(3) A, C and E only
(4) B, D and E only
Ans: (2) A, D and E only
Q61. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as
(1) mycelium
(2) plasmodium
(3) protonema
(4) fruiting body
Ans: (2) plasmodium
Q62. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct?
(1) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two single microtubules
(2) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
(3) The organized beating of cilia is controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin
Ans: (2) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
Q63. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between RNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
(1) Tetracycline
(2) Neomycin
(3) Erythromycin
(4) Streptomycin
Ans: (2) Neomycin
Q64. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus
(1) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
(2) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga
(3) releases oxygen for the alga
(4) provides food for the alga
Ans: (2) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga
Q65. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
(1) Anabaena
(2) Physarum
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Thiobacillus
Ans: (2) Physarum
Q66. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
(1) claviceps
(2) uncimula
(3) phytophthora.
(4) ustilago
Ans: (1) claviceps
Q67. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes
(1) Morchella and mushrooms
(2) puffballs and Claviceps
(3) birds nest fungi and puffballs.
(4) peziza and stink borns
Ans: (3) birds nest fungi and puffballs
Q68. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong?
(1) They cause diseases in plants
(2) They are pleomorphic
(3) They are also called PPLO.
(4) They are sensitive to penicillin
Ans: (4) They are sensitive to penicillin
Q69. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a
(1) Bacterium
(2) Prion
(3) Virus
(4) Worm
Ans: (2) Prion
Q70. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?
(1) Root-knot of vegetables – Meloidogyne sp
(2) Black rust of wheat – Puccinia graminis
(3) Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani
(4) Loose smut of wheat – Ustilago nuda
Ans: (3) Late blight of potato – Alternaria solani
Q71. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify:
(1) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
(2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(3) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
(4) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
Ans: (2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
Q72. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one of the following statements is true about archaea?
(1) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(2) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
(3) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes.
(4) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Ans: (4) Archaea have some novel features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q73. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species of
(1) Alternaria
(2) Xanthomonas
(3) Erwinia
(4) Pseudomonas
Ans: (2) Xanthomonas
Q74. Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide?
(1) Loose smut of wheat
(2) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
(3) Black rust of wheat
(4) Downy mildew of grapes
Ans: (4) Downy mildew of grapes
Q75. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
(1) Chlamydomonas
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Streptococcus
Ans: (4) Streptococcus
Q76. Ringworm in humans is caused by:
(1) Nematodes
(2) Bacteria
(3) Viruses
(4) Fungi
Ans: (4) Fungi
Q77. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
(1) Archaea
(2) Protista
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi
Ans: (2) Protista
Q78. Mannitol is the stored food in:
(1) Gracilaria
(2) Porphyra
(3) Chara
(4) Fucus
Ans: (4) Fucus
Q79. Phylogenetic system of classification is based on:
(1) floral characters
(2) morphological features
(3) evolutionary relationships
(4) chemical constituents
Ans: (3) evolutionary relationships
Q80. Archegoniophore is present in:
(1) Adiantum
(2) Marchantia
(3) Funaria
(4) Chara
Ans: (2) Marchantia
Q81. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
(1) Euglena viridis
(2) Paramecium caudatum
(3) Amoeba proteus
(4) Escherichia coli
Ans: (4) Escherichia coli
Q82. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of:
(1) Trichoderma
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Clostridium
Ans: (2) Saccharomyces
Q83. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(1) Nostoc
(2) Agrobacterium
(3) Mycorrhiza
(4) Rhizobium
Ans: (2) Agrobacterium
Q84. Virus envelope is known as:
(1) Nucleoprotein
(2) Capsid
(3) Core
(4) Virion
Ans: (2) Capsid
Q85. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched while the remaining three are correct?
(1) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds
(2) Penicillium – Conidia
(3) Agave – Bulbils
(4) Water hyacinth – Runner
Ans: (4) Water hyacinth – Runner
Q86. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a:
(1) polluted stream
(2) sulphur rock
(3) hot spring
(4) cattle yard
Ans: (4) cattle yard
Q87. The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in:
(1) Marchantia
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Pinus
(4) Adiantum
Ans: (3) Pinus
Q88. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular plant are
(1) larger and have larger sex organs
(2) smaller but have larger sex organs
(3) smaller and have smaller sex organs
(4) larger but have smaller sex organs
Ans: (2) smaller but have larger sex organs
Q89. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cells is:
(1) ribosomes
(2) plasma membrane
(3) cell wall
(4) nucleus
Ans: (2) plasma membrane
Q90. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
(1) Slime moulds
(2) protists
(3) blue green algae
(4) golden algae
Ans: (3) blue green algae
Q91. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd from milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones categorised as:
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria
(4) Archaebacteria
Ans: (3) Heterotrophic bacteria
Q.92 Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc are
(1) Hormogonia
(2) Akinetes
(3) Nodules
(4) Heterocysts
Ans: (4) Heterocysts
Q93. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed habit because:
(1) megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat
(2) female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds
(3) embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte.
(4) female gametophyte lacks archegonia
Ans: (3) embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte
Q94. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong? (A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses (B) Salvinia is heterosporous (C) The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic (D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees
(1) Statements (B) and (C)
(2) Statements (A) and (C)
(3) Statements (A) and (B)
(4) Statements (A) and (D)
Ans: (4) Statements (A) and (D)
Q95. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1 – 4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it? ItemsCategory- Exception
(1) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma -Protozoan parasites- Cuscuta
(2) UAA, UAG, UGA -Stop codons -UAG
(3) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria -Bacterial diseases -Diphtheria
(4) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat -Australian marsupials -Wombat
Ans: (1) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma -Protozoan parasites- Cuscuta
Q96. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
(1) plantae
(2) protista
(3) monera
(4) algae
Ans: (4) algae
Q97. How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs? Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces, Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
Ans: (1) Six
Q98. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic group
(1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
(2) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
(3) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista
(4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae
and a protozoan
Ans: (1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
Q99. Which statement is wrong for viruses
(1) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
(2) All are parasites
(3) Antibiotics have no effect on them
(4) All of them have helical symmetry
Ans: (4) All of them have helical symmetry
Q100. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two cells in Chlamydomonas is
(1) somatogamy
(2) isogamy
(3) hologamy
(4) homogamy
Ans: (2) isogamy
