NEET Biology Previous Years MCQs Set 1

Q1. System of classification used by Linnaeus was 

(1) phylogenetic system 
(2) natural system 
(3) asexual system 
(4) artificial system 

Answer: (4) artificial system

Q2. Artificial system of classification was first used by 

(1) Pliny the Elder 
(2) Linnaeus 
(3) Bentham and Hooker 
(4) De Candolle 

Answer: (1) Pliny the Elder

Q3. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is 

(1) phylogenetic 
(2) artificial 
(3) numerical 
(4) natural 

Answer: (4) natural 

Q4. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by 

(1) Julian Huxley 
(2) Bentham and Hooker 
(3) A.P. de Candolle 
(4) Linnaeus 

Answer: (1) Julian Huxley

Q5. Static concept of species was put forward by 

(1) Theophrastus 
(2) de Candolle 
(3) Darwin 
(4) Linnaeus 

Answer: (4) Linnaeus 

Q6. An important criterion for modern day classification is 

(1) breeding habits 
(2) resemblances in morphology 
(3) presence or absence of notochord 
(4) anatomical and physiological traits 

Answer: (4)  anatomical and physiological traits

Q7. Employment of hereditary principles in the improvement of human race is 

(1) Euphenics 
(2) Euthenics 
(3) Ethnology 
(4) Eugenics 

Answer: (4) Eugenics 

Q8. A taxon is 

(1) a type of living organisms 
(2) a group of related families 
(3) a taxonomic group of any ranking 
(4) a group of related species 

Answer: (3) a taxonomic group of any ranking

Q9. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is 

(1) family 
(2) species 
(3) variety 
(4) kingdom 

Answer: (2) species 

Q10. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called 

(1) binomial 
(2) monomial 
(3) polynomial 
(4) vernacular 

Answer: (1)binomial 

Q11. Binomial nomenclature means 

(1) two names, one latinised, other of a person 
(2) one name given by two scientists 
(3) two names of the same plant 
(4) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet 

Answer: (4) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet 

Q12. Sequence of taxonomic categories is 

(1) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species 
(2) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus – Species 
(3) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family – Genus – Species 
(4) Division – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus – Species 

Answer: (1) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species  

Q13. The term phylum was given by 

1) Theophrastus 
(2) Cuvier 
(3) Linnaeus 
(4) Haeckel 

Answer: (2) Cuvier 

Q14. Homeostasis is an organism’s 

(1) disturbance in regulatory control 
(2) tendency to change with change in environment
(3) plants and animal extracts used in homeopathy 
(4) tendency to resist change 

Answer: (4) tendency to resist change

Q15. Study of fossils is 

(1) saurology 
(2) palaeontology 
(3) organic evolution 
(4) herpetology 

Answer: (2) palaeontology 

Q16. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words 

(1) Family and genus 
(2) Genus and species 
(3) Species and variety 
(4) Order and family 

Answer: (2) Genus and species

Q17. Phylogenetic classification is based on 

(1) overall similarities 
(2) utilitarian system 
(3) common evolutionary descent 
(4) habits 

Answer: (3) common evolutionary descent 

Q18. Species is 

(1) specific class of evolution 
(2) unit of classification 
(3) not related to evolution 
(4) unit in the evolutionary history of a tree 

Answer: (2) unit of classification

Q19. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by 

(1) Huxley 
(2) de Vries 
(3) John Ray 
(4) Carolus Linnaeus 

Answer: (4) Carolus Linnaeus

Q20. Linnaeus is credited with 

(1) discovery of microscope 
(2) binomial nomenclature 
(3) discovery of blood circulation 
(4) theory of biogenesis 

Answer: (2)  binomial nomenclature

Q21. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere the temperature of earth’s surface would be 

(1) the same 
(2) higher than the present form environmental issues 
(3) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere from environmental issues 
(4) less than the present 

Answer: (4)  less than the present

Q22. Species occurring in different geographical areas are called as 

(1) allopatric 
(2) sibling 
(3) neopatric 
(4) sympatric 

Answer: (1) allopatric 

Q23. In the five-kingdom system of classification, which single kingdom out of the following can include blue green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria? 

(1) Protista
(2) Fungi 
(3) Monera 
(4) Plantae 

Answer: (3) Monera 

Q24. The high boiling point of water is advantageous to living organisms because 

(1) it allows organisms to spread heat evenly throughout their bodies 
(2) the environment seldom reaches the boiling point of water 
(3) organisms can absorb a great deal of heat before they reach the boiling point from organisms and population 
(4) organisms can easily boil off enough water to keep themselves cool 

Answer: (4) organisms can easily boil off enough water to keep themselves cool

Q25. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without flesh” is the statement of 

(1) Takhtajan 
(2) Oswald Tippo 
(3) Bentham and Hooker 
(4) John Hutchinson 

Answer: (1) Takhtajan 

Q26. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is usually referred to damages caused by 

(1) Encephalitis 
(2) Low temperature 
(3) Radiation 
(4) High temperature 

Answer: (3) Radiation 

Q27. The most important feature of all living systems is to 

(1) produce gametes 
(2) utilize oxygen to generate energy
(3) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities 
(4) replicate the genetic information 

Answer: (4) replicate the genetic information 

Q28. The book Genera Plantarum was written by 

(1) Engler and Prantl 
(2) Bessy 
(3) Bentham & Hooker 
(4) Hutchinson 

Answer: (3)  Bentham & Hooker

Q29. A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered, is 

(1) natural system 
(2) artificial system 
(3) phylogenetic system 
(4) synthetic system 

Answer: (1) natural system 

Q30. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to 

(1) name the living organisms 
(2) explain the origin of living organisms 
(3) facilitate identification of unknown organisms 
(4) trace the evolution of living organisms 

Answer: (3) facilitate identification of unknown organisms 

Q31. What is true for individuals of the same species? 

(1) Interbreeding 
(2) Live in the same niche 
(3) Live in different habitats 
(4) Live in the same habitat 

Answer: (1) Interbreeding 

Q32. In the five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is 

(1) structure of cell wall 
(2) structure of nucleus 
(3) asexual reproduction 
(4) mode of nutrition 

Answer: (4) mode of nutrition 

Q33. First life on earth was 

(1) Autotrophs 
(2) Cyanobacteria 
(3) Photoautotrophs 
(4) Chemoheterotrophs 

Answer: (4) Chemoheterotrophs 

Q34. What is true for photolithotrophs? 

(1) Obtain energy from organic compounds 
(2) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds 
(3) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds
(4) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds 

Answer: (4) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds 

Q35. Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus? 

(1) Class 
(2) Species 
(3) Family 
(4) Division 

Answer: (2) Species 

Q36. Plants reproduced by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term 

(1) Bryophytes 
(2) Thallophytes 
(3) Sporophytes 
(4) Cryptogams 

Answer: (4) Cryptogams 

Q37. Species are considered as 

(1) the lowest units of classification 
(2) real units of classification devised by taxonomists 
(3) artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms 
(4) real basic units of classification 

Answer: (1) the lowest units of classification

Q38. Biosystematics aims at 

(1) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships 
(2) identification and arrangement of organisms 
(3) dendrograms based on DNA characteristics 
(4) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms 

Answer: (1) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships

Q39. The vector for sleeping sickness is 

(1) Sand fly 
(2) House fly 
(3) Fruit fly 
(4) Tse-Tse fly 

Ans: (4) Tse-Tse fly

Q40. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called 

(1) saprozoic 
(2) photoautotrophs 
(3) copro heterotrophs 
(4) chemoautotrophs 

Answer: (4) chemoautotrophs

Q41. Select the correct statement from the following? 

(1) Mutations are random and directional 
(2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature 
(3) Darwinian variations are small and directionless. 
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae 

Answer: (2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature

Q42. Biological organisation starts with 

(1) atomic level 
(2) cellular level 
(3) submicroscopic molecular level 
(4) organismic level 

Answer: (3) submicroscopic molecular level

Q43. ICBN stands for 

(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature 
(2) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature 
(3) Indian Congress of Biological Names. 
(4) International congress of Biological Names 

Answer: (2) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature 

Q44. Which of the following is not true for a species? 

(1) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species. 
(2) Members of a species can interbreed. 
(3) Variations occur among members of a species. 
(4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species. 

Answer: (4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.

Q45. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their 

(1) nature of self pollination 
(2) power of adaptability in diverse habitat 
(3) domestication by man 
(4) property of producing large numbers of seeds

Answer: (2) power of adaptability in diverse habitat 

Q46. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things? 

(1) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory 
(2) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro 
(3) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on the surface as well as internally. 
(4) Increase in mass from inside only 

Answer: (1) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory 

Q47. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category? 

(1) Humans – primata, the family 
(2) Tiger – tigris, the species 
(3) Housefly – musca, an order 
(4) Cuttlefish – mollusca, a class 

Answer: (2) Tiger – tigris, the species 

Q48. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit? 

(1) Free -living gametophyte 
(2) Heterospory 
(3) Dependent sporophyte 
(4) Haplontic life cycle 

Answer: (2) Heterospory

Q49. The haemoglobin of a human foetus 

(1) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4 
(2) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult 
(3) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult 
(4) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult 

Answer: (3) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult 

Q50. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for 

(1) growth and movement 
(2) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution 
(3) responsiveness to touch. 
(4) reproduction 

Answer: (4) reproduction 

Q51. The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is 

(1) T. tangela 
(2) Trypanosoma cruzi 
(3) T. gambiense 
(4) T. rhodesiense 

Answer: (3) T. gambiense

Q52. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their 

(1) Order 
(2) Genus 
(3) Division 
(4) Family 

Answer: (4) Family 

Q53. Which one of the following is not a correct statement? 

(1) Key is taxonomic aid for identification of specimens. 
(2) Botanical gardens have collections of living plants for reference. 
(3) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens. 
(4) A museum has a collection of photographs of plants and animals 

Answer: (4) A museum has a collection of photographs of plants and animals

Q54. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described? 

(1) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests. 
(2) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile. 
(3) E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine. 
(4) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria. Answer: (1) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.

Q55. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they 

(1) are sensitive to SO2 
(2) show association between algae and fungi 
(3) flourish in a SO2 rich environment 
(4) grow faster than others 

Answer: (1) are sensitive to SO2

Q56. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters the human body is 

(1) trophozoite 
(2) merozoite 
(3) minuta form 
(4) sporozoite 

Answer: (4) sporozoite

Q57. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans

(1) Entamoeba histolytica 
(2) Leishmania donovani 
(3) Plasmodium vivax 
(4) Trypanosoma gambiense 

Answer: (4) Trypanosoma gambiense

Q58. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of 

(1) merozoites 
(2) crypto merozoites 
(3) trophozoites 
(4) meta crypto merozoites 

Answer: (1) merozoites

Q59. Trypanosoma belongs to class 

(1) Ciliata 
(2) Sarcodina 
(3) Sporozoa 
(4) Zooflagellata 

Answer: (4) Zooflagellata

Q60. Amoebiasis is prevented by 

(1) drinking boiled water
(2) eating balanced food 
(3) using mosquito nets 
(4) eating plenty of fruits 

Answer: (1) drinking boiled water

Q61. Which is true about Trypanosoma? 

(1) Facultative Parasite 
(2) Polymorphic 
(3) Non-pathogenic 
(4) Monogenetic 

Answer: (2) Polymorphic

Q62. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in 

(1) both micronucleus and macronucleus 
(2) micronucleus 
(3) mitochondria 
(4) macronucleus 

Answer: (2) micronucleus

Q63. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in their 

(1) cytoplasm 
(2) cell wall 
(3) flagella 
(4) cell membrane 

Answer: (2) cell wall

Q64. Which one belongs to monera? 

(1) Gelidium 
(2) Amoeba 
(3) Spirogyra 
(4) Escherichia 

Answer: (4) Escherichia

Q65. Malignant tertian malaria parasite is 

(1) P. ovale 
(2) Plasmodium falciparum 
(3) P. malariae 
(4) P. vivax 

Answer: (2) Plasmodium falciparum

Q66. Who discovered Plasmodium in the R.B.C of human beings? 

(1) Laveran 
(2) Ronald Ross 
(3) Stephens 
(4) Mendel 

Answer: (1) Laveran 

Q67. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by 

(1) Bryophytes 
(2) Algae 
(3) Pteridophytes 
(4) Fungi 

Answer: (4) Fungi

Q68. A nonphotosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing soil bacterium is 

(1) Azotobacter 
(2) Rhizobium 
(3) Klebsiella 
(4) Clostridium 

Answer: (1) Azotobacter 

Q69. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class 

(1) Sporozoa 
(2) Sarcodina 
(3) Dinophyceae 
(4) Ciliata 

Answer: (1) Sporozoa

Q70. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is 

(1) exoerythrocytic schizogony 
(2) sexual cycle 
(3) post-erythrocytic schizogony 
(4) pre-erythrocytic schizogony 

Answer: (2) sexual cycle

Q71. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is 

(1) no conjugation 
(2) neither syngamy nor reduction division 
(3) no exchange of genetic material 
(4) distinct chromosomes are absent 

Answer: (2) neither syngamy nor reduction division

Q72. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through 

(1) contractile vacuole 
(2) pseudopodia 
(3) general surface 
(4) nucleus 

Answer: (1) contractile vacuole

Q73. African sleeping sickness is due to 

(1) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis 
(2) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tsetse fly 
(3) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly. 
(4) Trypanosoma lewisi transmitted by Bed Bug 

Answer: (1) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis

Q74. Name the organisms which do not derive energy directly or indirectly from sun 

(1) Symbiotic bacteria 
(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria 
(3) Mould 
(4) Pathogenic bacteria 

Answer: (2) Chemosynthetic bacteria 

Q75. Schizont stage of Plasmodium occurs in human cells

(1) Erythrocytes and liver cells 
(2) Erythrocytes 
(3) Erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells 
(4) Liver cells 

Answer: (1) Erythrocytes and liver cells

Q76. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the organism likely to be destroyed is 

(1) Ascaris
(2) Leishmania 
(3) Plasmodium 
(4) Trypanosoma 

Answer: (3) Plasmodium 

Q77. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is made of 

(1) a single double stranded DNA 
(2) histones and nonhistones 
(3) a single stranded DNA 
(4) RNA and histones 

Answer: (1) a single double stranded DNA

Q78. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is 

(1) easy to handle 
(2) easily cultured 
(3) easily multiplied in host 
(4) easily available 

Answer: (2) easily cultured

Q79. Organisms which are indicators of SO2 pollution of air 

(1) Mushrooms 
(2) Mosses 
(3) Puffballs 
(4) Lichens 

Answer: (4) Lichens 

Q80. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green algae is due to 

(1) mitochondrial structure 
(2) cell wall structure 
(3) homopolar bonds in their proteins 
(4) cell organisation 

Answer: (3) homopolar bonds in their proteins

Q81. The term antibiotic was first used by 

(1) Waksman 
(2) Flemming 
(3) Lister 
(4) Pasteur 

Answer: (1) Waksman 

Q82. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic engineering is 

(1) golgi apparatus 
(2) plasmid
(3) lomasome 
(4) mitochondria 

Answer: (2) plasmid

Q83. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are 

(1) poly ribonucleotides 
(2) double stranded RNA 
(3) proteinaceous 
(4) single stranded RNA 

Answer: (4) single stranded RNA

Q84. Reverse transcriptase is 

(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 

Answer: (3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase

Q85. Entamoeba coli causes 

(1) Dysentery 
(2) Pyorrhoea 
(3) None 
(4) Diarrhoea 

Answer: (3) None 

Q86. Protistan genome has

(1) gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass 
(2) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm 
(3) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance 
(4) free nucleic acid aggregates 

Answer: (2) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm

Q87. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to 

(1) green Algae 
(2) mosses 
(3) soil Fungi 
(4) bacteria 

Answer: (4) bacteria 

Q88. Rickettsiae constitute a group under 

(1) independent group between bacteria and viruses 
(2) bacteria 
(3) fungi 
(4) viruses 

Answer: (1) independent group between bacteria and viruses 

Q89. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are 

(1) soil fungi 
(2) Azotobacter 
(3) blue-green algae 
(4) Pseudomonas 

Answer: (2) Azotobacter 

Q90. Decomposers are organisms that 

(1) attack and kill plants as well as animals
(2) elaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues 
(3) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body 
(4) operate in the living body and simplify organic substances of cells step by step 

Answer: (3)  operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body

Q91. Claviceps purpurea is the causal organism of 

(1) Ergot of Rye 
(2) Smut of Barley 
(3) Powdery Mildew of Pea. 
(4) Rust of Wheat 

Answer: (1) Ergot of Rye

Q92. Ustilago causes plant diseases called smut because 

(1) they develop sooty masses of spores 
(2) they parasitise cereals 
(3) affected parts become completely black. 
(4) mycelium is back 

Answer: (3) affected parts become completely black

Q93. Protista includes 

(1) chemoautotrophs
(2) heterotrophs 
(3) all the above 
(4) chemoheterotrophs

Answer: (3) all the above

Q94. Protists obtain food as 

(1) chemosynthesizers 
(2) photosynthesizers, symbionts and holotrophs 
(3) holotrophs 
(4) photosynthesizers 

Answer: (2) photosynthesizers, symbionts and holotrophs

Q95. Macro and micronucleus are the characteristic feature of 

(1) Hydra and Balantidium 
(2) Paramecium and Vorticella 
(3) Vorticella and Nyctotherus 
(4) Opelina and Nictothisus 

Answer: (2) Paramecium and Vorticella 

Q96. The function of contractile vacuole, in protozoa, is 

(1) osmoregulation 
(2) locomotion 
(3) reproduction 
(4) food digestion 

Answer: (1) osmoregulation 

Q97. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal?

(1) Mycoplasma 
(2) Bacteria 
(3) Paramecium 
(4) Euglena 

Answer: (4) Euglena  

Q98. The plasmid 

(1) is a component of the cell wall of bacteria 
(2) helps in respiration 
(3) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in microorganisms 
(4) genes found inside the nucleus 

Answer: (3) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in microorganisms

Q99. Mycorrhiza represents 

(1) symbiosis 
(2) antagonism 
(3) parasitism 
(4) endemism 

Answer: (1) symbiosis  

Q100. White rust disease is caused by 

(1) Phytophthora
(2) Claviceps 
(3) Albugo candida 
(4) Alternaria

Answer: (3) Albugo candida