Q1. System of classification used by Linnaeus was
(1) phylogenetic system
(2) natural system
(3) asexual system
(4) artificial system
Answer: (4) artificial system
Q2. Artificial system of classification was first used by
(1) Pliny the Elder
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Bentham and Hooker
(4) De Candolle
Answer: (1) Pliny the Elder
Q3. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker is
(1) phylogenetic
(2) artificial
(3) numerical
(4) natural
Answer: (4) natural
Q4. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by
(1) Julian Huxley
(2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) A.P. de Candolle
(4) Linnaeus
Answer: (1) Julian Huxley
Q5. Static concept of species was put forward by
(1) Theophrastus
(2) de Candolle
(3) Darwin
(4) Linnaeus
Answer: (4) Linnaeus
Q6. An important criterion for modern day classification is
(1) breeding habits
(2) resemblances in morphology
(3) presence or absence of notochord
(4) anatomical and physiological traits
Answer: (4) anatomical and physiological traits
Q7. Employment of hereditary principles in the improvement of human race is
(1) Euphenics
(2) Euthenics
(3) Ethnology
(4) Eugenics
Answer: (4) Eugenics
Q8. A taxon is
(1) a type of living organisms
(2) a group of related families
(3) a taxonomic group of any ranking
(4) a group of related species
Answer: (3) a taxonomic group of any ranking
Q9. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is
(1) family
(2) species
(3) variety
(4) kingdom
Answer: (2) species
Q10. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called
(1) binomial
(2) monomial
(3) polynomial
(4) vernacular
Answer: (1)binomial
Q11. Binomial nomenclature means
(1) two names, one latinised, other of a person
(2) one name given by two scientists
(3) two names of the same plant
(4) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet
Answer: (4) one scientific name consisting of a generic and specific epithet
Q12. Sequence of taxonomic categories is
(1) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species
(2) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus – Species
(3) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family – Genus – Species
(4) Division – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus – Species
Answer: (1) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species
Q13. The term phylum was given by
1) Theophrastus
(2) Cuvier
(3) Linnaeus
(4) Haeckel
Answer: (2) Cuvier
Q14. Homeostasis is an organism’s
(1) disturbance in regulatory control
(2) tendency to change with change in environment
(3) plants and animal extracts used in homeopathy
(4) tendency to resist change
Answer: (4) tendency to resist change
Q15. Study of fossils is
(1) saurology
(2) palaeontology
(3) organic evolution
(4) herpetology
Answer: (2) palaeontology
Q16. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words
(1) Family and genus
(2) Genus and species
(3) Species and variety
(4) Order and family
Answer: (2) Genus and species
Q17. Phylogenetic classification is based on
(1) overall similarities
(2) utilitarian system
(3) common evolutionary descent
(4) habits
Answer: (3) common evolutionary descent
Q18. Species is
(1) specific class of evolution
(2) unit of classification
(3) not related to evolution
(4) unit in the evolutionary history of a tree
Answer: (2) unit of classification
Q19. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(1) Huxley
(2) de Vries
(3) John Ray
(4) Carolus Linnaeus
Answer: (4) Carolus Linnaeus
Q20. Linnaeus is credited with
(1) discovery of microscope
(2) binomial nomenclature
(3) discovery of blood circulation
(4) theory of biogenesis
Answer: (2) binomial nomenclature
Q21. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere the temperature of earth’s surface would be
(1) the same
(2) higher than the present form environmental issues
(3) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere from environmental issues
(4) less than the present
Answer: (4) less than the present
Q22. Species occurring in different geographical areas are called as
(1) allopatric
(2) sibling
(3) neopatric
(4) sympatric
Answer: (1) allopatric
Q23. In the five-kingdom system of classification, which single kingdom out of the following can include blue green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria?
(1) Protista
(2) Fungi
(3) Monera
(4) Plantae
Answer: (3) Monera
Q24. The high boiling point of water is advantageous to living organisms because
(1) it allows organisms to spread heat evenly throughout their bodies
(2) the environment seldom reaches the boiling point of water
(3) organisms can absorb a great deal of heat before they reach the boiling point from organisms and population
(4) organisms can easily boil off enough water to keep themselves cool
Answer: (4) organisms can easily boil off enough water to keep themselves cool
Q25. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without flesh” is the statement of
(1) Takhtajan
(2) Oswald Tippo
(3) Bentham and Hooker
(4) John Hutchinson
Answer: (1) Takhtajan
Q26. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is usually referred to damages caused by
(1) Encephalitis
(2) Low temperature
(3) Radiation
(4) High temperature
Answer: (3) Radiation
Q27. The most important feature of all living systems is to
(1) produce gametes
(2) utilize oxygen to generate energy
(3) utilize solar energy for metabolic activities
(4) replicate the genetic information
Answer: (4) replicate the genetic information
Q28. The book Genera Plantarum was written by
(1) Engler and Prantl
(2) Bessy
(3) Bentham & Hooker
(4) Hutchinson
Answer: (3) Bentham & Hooker
Q29. A system of classification in which a large number of traits are considered, is
(1) natural system
(2) artificial system
(3) phylogenetic system
(4) synthetic system
Answer: (1) natural system
Q30. The practical purpose of classification of living organisms is to
(1) name the living organisms
(2) explain the origin of living organisms
(3) facilitate identification of unknown organisms
(4) trace the evolution of living organisms
Answer: (3) facilitate identification of unknown organisms
Q31. What is true for individuals of the same species?
(1) Interbreeding
(2) Live in the same niche
(3) Live in different habitats
(4) Live in the same habitat
Answer: (1) Interbreeding
Q32. In the five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is
(1) structure of cell wall
(2) structure of nucleus
(3) asexual reproduction
(4) mode of nutrition
Answer: (4) mode of nutrition
Q33. First life on earth was
(1) Autotrophs
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Photoautotrophs
(4) Chemoheterotrophs
Answer: (4) Chemoheterotrophs
Q34. What is true for photolithotrophs?
(1) Obtain energy from organic compounds
(2) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from organic compounds
(3) Obtain energy from inorganic compounds
(4) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds
Answer: (4) Obtain energy from radiations and hydrogen from inorganic compounds
Q35. Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus?
(1) Class
(2) Species
(3) Family
(4) Division
Answer: (2) Species
Q36. Plants reproduced by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Thallophytes
(3) Sporophytes
(4) Cryptogams
Answer: (4) Cryptogams
Q37. Species are considered as
(1) the lowest units of classification
(2) real units of classification devised by taxonomists
(3) artificial concept of human mind which cannot be defined in absolute terms
(4) real basic units of classification
Answer: (1) the lowest units of classification
Q38. Biosystematics aims at
(1) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
(2) identification and arrangement of organisms
(3) dendrograms based on DNA characteristics
(4) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
Answer: (1) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
Q39. The vector for sleeping sickness is
(1) Sand fly
(2) House fly
(3) Fruit fly
(4) Tse-Tse fly
Ans: (4) Tse-Tse fly
Q40. Organisms which obtain energy by the oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds are called
(1) saprozoic
(2) photoautotrophs
(3) copro heterotrophs
(4) chemoautotrophs
Answer: (4) chemoautotrophs
Q41. Select the correct statement from the following?
(1) Mutations are random and directional
(2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
(3) Darwinian variations are small and directionless.
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
Answer: (2) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
Q42. Biological organisation starts with
(1) atomic level
(2) cellular level
(3) submicroscopic molecular level
(4) organismic level
Answer: (3) submicroscopic molecular level
Q43. ICBN stands for
(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(2) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(3) Indian Congress of Biological Names.
(4) International congress of Biological Names
Answer: (2) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Q44. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(1) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
(2) Members of a species can interbreed.
(3) Variations occur among members of a species.
(4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
Answer: (4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
Q45. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their
(1) nature of self pollination
(2) power of adaptability in diverse habitat
(3) domestication by man
(4) property of producing large numbers of seeds
Answer: (2) power of adaptability in diverse habitat
Q46. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?
(1) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
(2) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
(3) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on the surface as well as internally.
(4) Increase in mass from inside only
Answer: (1) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
Q47. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?
(1) Humans – primata, the family
(2) Tiger – tigris, the species
(3) Housefly – musca, an order
(4) Cuttlefish – mollusca, a class
Answer: (2) Tiger – tigris, the species
Q48. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit?
(1) Free -living gametophyte
(2) Heterospory
(3) Dependent sporophyte
(4) Haplontic life cycle
Answer: (2) Heterospory
Q49. The haemoglobin of a human foetus
(1) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
(2) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult
(3) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
(4) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
Answer: (3) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
Q50. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for
(1) growth and movement
(2) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
(3) responsiveness to touch.
(4) reproduction
Answer: (4) reproduction
Q51. The causal organism for African sleeping sickness is
(1) T. tangela
(2) Trypanosoma cruzi
(3) T. gambiense
(4) T. rhodesiense
Answer: (3) T. gambiense
Q52. The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their
(1) Order
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Family
Answer: (4) Family
Q53. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
(1) Key is taxonomic aid for identification of specimens.
(2) Botanical gardens have collections of living plants for reference.
(3) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens.
(4) A museum has a collection of photographs of plants and animals
Answer: (4) A museum has a collection of photographs of plants and animals
Q54. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described?
(1) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
(2) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile.
(3) E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine.
(4) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria. Answer: (1) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests.
Q55. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
(1) are sensitive to SO2
(2) show association between algae and fungi
(3) flourish in a SO2 rich environment
(4) grow faster than others
Answer: (1) are sensitive to SO2
Q56. The infective stage of malarial parasite Plasmodium that enters the human body is
(1) trophozoite
(2) merozoite
(3) minuta form
(4) sporozoite
Answer: (4) sporozoite
Q57. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans
(1) Entamoeba histolytica
(2) Leishmania donovani
(3) Plasmodium vivax
(4) Trypanosoma gambiense
Answer: (4) Trypanosoma gambiense
Q58. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of
(1) merozoites
(2) crypto merozoites
(3) trophozoites
(4) meta crypto merozoites
Answer: (1) merozoites
Q59. Trypanosoma belongs to class
(1) Ciliata
(2) Sarcodina
(3) Sporozoa
(4) Zooflagellata
Answer: (4) Zooflagellata
Q60. Amoebiasis is prevented by
(1) drinking boiled water
(2) eating balanced food
(3) using mosquito nets
(4) eating plenty of fruits
Answer: (1) drinking boiled water
Q61. Which is true about Trypanosoma?
(1) Facultative Parasite
(2) Polymorphic
(3) Non-pathogenic
(4) Monogenetic
Answer: (2) Polymorphic
Q62. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in
(1) both micronucleus and macronucleus
(2) micronucleus
(3) mitochondria
(4) macronucleus
Answer: (2) micronucleus
Q63. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in their
(1) cytoplasm
(2) cell wall
(3) flagella
(4) cell membrane
Answer: (2) cell wall
Q64. Which one belongs to monera?
(1) Gelidium
(2) Amoeba
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Escherichia
Answer: (4) Escherichia
Q65. Malignant tertian malaria parasite is
(1) P. ovale
(2) Plasmodium falciparum
(3) P. malariae
(4) P. vivax
Answer: (2) Plasmodium falciparum
Q66. Who discovered Plasmodium in the R.B.C of human beings?
(1) Laveran
(2) Ronald Ross
(3) Stephens
(4) Mendel
Answer: (1) Laveran
Q67. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited by
(1) Bryophytes
(2) Algae
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Fungi
Answer: (4) Fungi
Q68. A nonphotosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing soil bacterium is
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Klebsiella
(4) Clostridium
Answer: (1) Azotobacter
Q69. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to class
(1) Sporozoa
(2) Sarcodina
(3) Dinophyceae
(4) Ciliata
Answer: (1) Sporozoa
Q70. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is
(1) exoerythrocytic schizogony
(2) sexual cycle
(3) post-erythrocytic schizogony
(4) pre-erythrocytic schizogony
Answer: (2) sexual cycle
Q71. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because there is
(1) no conjugation
(2) neither syngamy nor reduction division
(3) no exchange of genetic material
(4) distinct chromosomes are absent
Answer: (2) neither syngamy nor reduction division
Q72. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation occurs through
(1) contractile vacuole
(2) pseudopodia
(3) general surface
(4) nucleus
Answer: (1) contractile vacuole
Q73. African sleeping sickness is due to
(1) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis
(2) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tsetse fly
(3) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly.
(4) Trypanosoma lewisi transmitted by Bed Bug
Answer: (1) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis
Q74. Name the organisms which do not derive energy directly or indirectly from sun
(1) Symbiotic bacteria
(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Mould
(4) Pathogenic bacteria
Answer: (2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
Q75. Schizont stage of Plasmodium occurs in human cells
(1) Erythrocytes and liver cells
(2) Erythrocytes
(3) Erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells
(4) Liver cells
Answer: (1) Erythrocytes and liver cells
Q76. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the organism likely to be destroyed is
(1) Ascaris
(2) Leishmania
(3) Plasmodium
(4) Trypanosoma
Answer: (3) Plasmodium
Q77. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is made of
(1) a single double stranded DNA
(2) histones and nonhistones
(3) a single stranded DNA
(4) RNA and histones
Answer: (1) a single double stranded DNA
Q78. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is
(1) easy to handle
(2) easily cultured
(3) easily multiplied in host
(4) easily available
Answer: (2) easily cultured
Q79. Organisms which are indicators of SO2 pollution of air
(1) Mushrooms
(2) Mosses
(3) Puffballs
(4) Lichens
Answer: (4) Lichens
Q80. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green algae is due to
(1) mitochondrial structure
(2) cell wall structure
(3) homopolar bonds in their proteins
(4) cell organisation
Answer: (3) homopolar bonds in their proteins
Q81. The term antibiotic was first used by
(1) Waksman
(2) Flemming
(3) Lister
(4) Pasteur
Answer: (1) Waksman
Q82. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic engineering is
(1) golgi apparatus
(2) plasmid
(3) lomasome
(4) mitochondria
Answer: (2) plasmid
Q83. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are
(1) poly ribonucleotides
(2) double stranded RNA
(3) proteinaceous
(4) single stranded RNA
Answer: (4) single stranded RNA
Q84. Reverse transcriptase is
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Answer: (3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Q85. Entamoeba coli causes
(1) Dysentery
(2) Pyorrhoea
(3) None
(4) Diarrhoea
Answer: (3) None
Q86. Protistan genome has
(1) gene containing nucleoproteins condensed together in loose mass
(2) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm
(3) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell substance
(4) free nucleic acid aggregates
Answer: (2) membrane bound nucleoproteins embedded in cytoplasm
Q87. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to
(1) green Algae
(2) mosses
(3) soil Fungi
(4) bacteria
Answer: (4) bacteria
Q88. Rickettsiae constitute a group under
(1) independent group between bacteria and viruses
(2) bacteria
(3) fungi
(4) viruses
Answer: (1) independent group between bacteria and viruses
Q89. Nonsymbiotic nitrogen fixers are
(1) soil fungi
(2) Azotobacter
(3) blue-green algae
(4) Pseudomonas
Answer: (2) Azotobacter
Q90. Decomposers are organisms that
(1) attack and kill plants as well as animals
(2) elaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues
(3) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body
(4) operate in the living body and simplify organic substances of cells step by step
Answer: (3) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body
Q91. Claviceps purpurea is the causal organism of
(1) Ergot of Rye
(2) Smut of Barley
(3) Powdery Mildew of Pea.
(4) Rust of Wheat
Answer: (1) Ergot of Rye
Q92. Ustilago causes plant diseases called smut because
(1) they develop sooty masses of spores
(2) they parasitise cereals
(3) affected parts become completely black.
(4) mycelium is back
Answer: (3) affected parts become completely black
Q93. Protista includes
(1) chemoautotrophs
(2) heterotrophs
(3) all the above
(4) chemoheterotrophs
Answer: (3) all the above
Q94. Protists obtain food as
(1) chemosynthesizers
(2) photosynthesizers, symbionts and holotrophs
(3) holotrophs
(4) photosynthesizers
Answer: (2) photosynthesizers, symbionts and holotrophs
Q95. Macro and micronucleus are the characteristic feature of
(1) Hydra and Balantidium
(2) Paramecium and Vorticella
(3) Vorticella and Nyctotherus
(4) Opelina and Nictothisus
Answer: (2) Paramecium and Vorticella
Q96. The function of contractile vacuole, in protozoa, is
(1) osmoregulation
(2) locomotion
(3) reproduction
(4) food digestion
Answer: (1) osmoregulation
Q97. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of both a plant and an animal?
(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Paramecium
(4) Euglena
Answer: (4) Euglena
Q98. The plasmid
(1) is a component of the cell wall of bacteria
(2) helps in respiration
(3) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in microorganisms
(4) genes found inside the nucleus
Answer: (3) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in microorganisms
Q99. Mycorrhiza represents
(1) symbiosis
(2) antagonism
(3) parasitism
(4) endemism
Answer: (1) symbiosis
Q100. White rust disease is caused by
(1) Phytophthora
(2) Claviceps
(3) Albugo candida
(4) Alternaria
Answer: (3) Albugo candida
